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  • CHAPTERS 1 & 2, DISCUSSION-Spiritual Deception In The Highest
    • Bobby M. Johnson
      Posted Jul 14, 2002 5:22 PM


      Wait a minute! That's a pretty strong question. We don't believe that's possible, --- do we? Surely all Bibles contain the Word of God. We trust them all, don't we? The only differences are to change "archaic" words into a more modern language style, --- right? There was never anyone in scholarly circles throughout history that would DARE take advantage of believing Christians and try to change our mind in an "underhanded" way about the Bible, --- was there?

      Well --- maybe, --- just maybe this bears looking into. Mind you I'm a "Doubting Thomas", I might be from Missouri so you will just have to show me and also convience me!

      First of all, do we want to trust our soul and the souls of our loved ones to those who have to make enough changes in our Bibles to qualify for a COPYRIGHT? According to the Library of Congress - U.S. Copyright Office in their list of "Frequently Asked Questions about Copyrights" question 49: "How much do I have to change in order to claim a copyright in someone else's work?", the answer is found in their Circular 14, paragraph 3:

      "Only the owner of copyright in a work has the right to prepare, or to authorize someone else to create a new version of that work. Accordingly, you cannot claim copyright to another's work, no matter how much you change it, unless you have the owner's consent. See Circular 14."

      Circular 14 says: "To be copyrightable, a derivative work must be different enough from the original to be regarded as a "new work" or must contain a substantial amount of new material. Making minor changes or additions of little substance to a preexisting work will not qualify as a new version for copyright purposes. The new material must be original and copyrightable in itself."

      NOTE: "DERIVATIVE WORKS" a.k.a. "new versions" include translations according to Circular 14.

      So it looks like according to the "law of the land", all new Bible versions must be substantially different from each other. Now since all words do not mean the same thing, this known fact presented in "Circular 14" should make us want to check out history and be "--- comparing spiritual things with spiritual". We should each decide how far off target we can afford to be with our Bibles before our souls become compromised and we become "property of this world", Satan's that is, for all of eternity.

      If Satan has tampered with any of the Bible versions that we study then there will be proof of his deception in the way he communicates thru "his written word".

      .....1. He will imply that he is in power, even above God in places of "his word".

      .....2. The Word of God will always be present in "his written word", just not all of it.

      .....3. Christ will be shown to be less than Deity and more of "just a man" than He really is.

      .....4. Most verses will contain very slight wording changes that change the meaning in context.

      .....5. Important truths, words and verses will be completely gone.

      .....6. There will be contradictions.

      .....7. Salvation steps and Christian doctrine will be omitted in places to support "other doctrines".

      We are told the changes that "Bible versions" have undergone do not affect one single Christian doctrine. But they do. There are doubts as to where the real Word of God exists today. We fool ourselves by consulting 2 or 3 or more versions to find God's Word. Christian faith is devastated and division has occurred. Yet no one will spend the time to find the truth and "compare spiritual things with spiritual." Is this the answer as to why we are not making an impact on the world today?
      Is this why we have division in the Church of Christ? Is this where the threat of division lies?

      We all know that Satan believes and would have us believe that he is equal to God. Does your Bible imply that possibly someone other than God "by" His Word made all things. What does it mean: "Through him all things were made; --- "? Could this be a subtle clue that Satan has influenced the use of "one single word" change from "by" to "through" to cast doubt that God thru His spoken Word made all things?

      Don't we all know that God is the maker and not a conduit through which all things were made? If God is the "conduit (through)" who else are we to believe is the "real" maker? Is that not: "--- comparing spiritual things with spiritual" (1 Corinthians 2:13)?

      Check your Bible and see if it uses "by" or "through" in John 1:3.

      Now join with us in studying our Bibles to answer some interesting questions. We will use as a guide
      the article by Jeff Johnson, "Spiritual Deception in the Highest", **PART ONE**, Chapter 1: Bible Comparison: A Broad Analysis & Chapter 2: Bible Comparison: (An Individual Analysis).

      Please use your favorite Bible Version and answer the questions in Jeff's Bible Quiz: 20 Questions for this week's study. We look forward to your comments as we study to find exactly where God's Word is located.

      Bobby M. Johnson, a member of the Church of Christ

      Reference: U.S. Copyright Office
      Click here to read chapters 1 & 2 of "Spiritual Deception In The Highest"
      others to let them know about this study
      Other study links about Bible versions and translations

      To respond to this post, click on "respond" in the lower right corner.

      In two weeks we will continue with chapter 3.
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