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Original Message
  • No Contradictions

    • Posted Dec 2, 2002 12:46 AM

      I appreciate all the different bible verses you posted. It is always a pleasure to read the word of God. (This is not meant sarcastically. I truly appreciate anyone’s effort at striving to do God’s will.)

      In an attempt to understand where it is you are coming from I read the article “Spiritual Deception” that you had linked to in one of your posts. I don’t know how much good our discussion will accomplish after reading this article. It seems that the attitude you and the writer have taken is that the KJV is the only true inspired word of God and that the translators themselves were inspired. While I would agree that the KJV is the inspired word of God and that the providence of God was definitely working for the good of man in their effort, I do not agree that it is the only translation that is the inspired word of God nor do I agree that the translators were inspired. The only inspired men of God involved in the completion of God’s word had a miraculous gift of the Holy Spirit.

      2 Peter 1:19–21 “We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 21For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.”

      I do not believe that you think these men had that sort of gift. But since God is a living God and since He is still active in this world today then why would He not want people of today to have a copy of His Holy Word available in their native language, whether it is Spanish, Danish, Portugese, Russian, or Modern English? I believe that our God is quite capable and quiet powerful enough to use divine providence in making this happen.

      As to the specific verses you quoted in your post, I suppose these were meant as a reply to my post saying that there were no contradictions in the translations. You have done a good job of making the point for me. Where are the contradictions? There are differences in translation, but no contradictions. Let’s look at a few of the verses you posted:

      Let’s do the easiest one first
      2 Samuel 21:19 - I suppose that you would say that there is a contradiction here because the NIV leaves out “the brother of.” The facts are that even the KJV admits in it’s own pages that “the brother of” was inserted by the translators. The words in brackets, italics, or parentheses (depending upon your particular bible) are an indication that these words were not in the original. Does this mean that the bible contradicts itself? Certainly not! We know the truth of the matter is that this actually was the brother of Goliath who was killed from reading 1 Chron. 20. We can also look to various bible dictionaries and lexicons and find out that “Lahmi the brother of” is very similar to “the Bethlehemite.” The translators of the KJV simply chose to “correct” the error in the MSS by inserting what we know to be true while the translators of the NIV chose to go with a more literal translation. Two different styles yet both are correct and no contradiction.


      Matthew 9:13 - Once again, since you made no comments, I must deduce that in reference to this vers you are pointing out the omission of “to repentance” in the NIV. The facts on this matter are quite clear. The phrase “to repentance” was an addition to the MSS that was used by the KJV translators. Earlier and equally reliable MSS do not have this phrase. Does this omit doctrine from God’s word? Absolutely not! (See Luke 5:32, 2 Peter 3:9, Luke 13:3, 5 and others.)

      Matthew 5:22 - I assume that the omission of “without a cause” is a contradiction. However we have accounts of Jesus saying things differently on occasion yet there is not contradiction. In Matthew 5 and 19 Jesus gives us the only reason for marriage after divorce, yet in Mark 10 Jesus gives no exception to the marriage after divorce rule. If there is an error in translation of the scripture let us all hope that it would err on the conservative side, as the NIV does here by leaving out the exception, instead of the other way around.

      Mark 16:9-20 - I would agree that the statement before this section in most modern translations might cause someone who is seeking for the truth to question the authenticity of these verses. The fact of the matter is that these MSS do exist. They are earlier and in a more reliable group of MSS than many that exist. I personally believe that verses 9–20 belong in the scripture but let’s not bury our head in the sand and pretend that the issue is not out there to be dealt with. You may very well come across one of these true seekers one day with the question of whether or not these verses belong in the bible. Even if this person is fully convinced that verses 9–20 do not belong in the bible, can we not still use other portions of scripture to teach the necessity of evangelism and baptism? (See Matt. 28:18–20, Acts 2:38, Romans 6:1–14, and numerous others.)

      I could go on but I feel that these suffice, at least for me anyway. I leave you with the words of Paul and pray that you all would pray this prayer with me.
      Ephesians 4:2–6“Be completely humble and gentle; be patient, bearing with one another in love. ”

      Toward Unity,
      Mitchell

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