I Just read this from a Website, and would like to know anyone's opinion... or by fact... or by knowledge from the Bible... Mapa-INC, ADD, or Neutral...
Can you enlighten???
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Mark says the crucifixion was on the 15th of Nissan. John says it was on the 14th.
Gospel of Mark: Jesus and his disciples celebrate the Passover Meal the evening before his crucifixion. He is arrested that evening and spends the night in jail. Early in the morning, the Sanhedrin delivers him to Pilate, and after a short trial, Pilate condemns him to death. And Jesus is crucified that morning, the morning after the Passover meal had been eaten.
Gospel of John: There is no Passover meal shared by Jesus with his disciples. Pilate’s trial of Jesus comes to an end at about 12:00 noon, on the DAY OF THE PREPARATION OF THE PASSOVER. Then Jesus is immediately sent off to be crucified.
The Day of the Preparation of the Passover would have been the 14th day of the Jewish Month of Nissan. That day, like all Jewish days, would end at sunset. After sunset, which would be the beginning of the 15th of Nissan, would be the Passover Seder, or the meal that Jesus shared with his disciples, according to Matthew, Mark, and Luke. But according to John, Jesus did not have this meal, presumably because John wanted to make Jesus be the sacrificial lamb normally associated with the Seder.
John makes a nice theological point by depicting Jesus as the actual Passover Lamb, but he does so by changing the story from the way it probably occurred historically. This is one of the many reasons I personally believe that Christians should be cautious about taking the Bible as a perfect historical, literal document. It was written to teach a theology, not necessarily a history, in our modern sense of that term.
But I will reconsider my evaluation if someone can successfully and satisfactorily reconcile these apparent contradictions about the date of the crucifixion.
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