Paul quoted scriptureFebruary 3 2010 at 6:07 PM
Vince (Login MoxiFox)
Response to What field are you now playing in Vince?
From the Greek Septuagint.
Now, in case you don't know what the Septuagint was, I will briefly explain...
Back in the days of about 140 BC, the entire area of Palestine was under Seleucid control. The Seleucids were successors of Alexander the Great -the Greek conquerer who conquered endlessly and created the Greek Empire.
By the year 140 BC, Greek was the officially enforced language of the region and most Jews knew no other language. In order to preserve Jewish culture/religion, the Hebrew scriptures were translated into Greek, so that Jews everywhere could read the scriptures. There were numerous efforts to accomplish this but the final official result was the Greek Septuagint ... and it was a pretty bad translation all around, insofar as accuracy goes.
The Maccabees succeeded in breaking away from the Greek Seleucid control and established the first Jewish Kingdom in ever so long. This was the Hasmonean Kingdom ... but it wasn't really "pure" because the Kings didn't descend from David.
In the period leading up to the time of apostle Paul -during the Hasmonean Kingdom and then during the Herod Kingdom period, there was much division amongst the religious elite as to whether the Jews should learn their own native Hebrew language again or just keep on sticking with their now-entrenched Greek. Those who favoured staying with Greek were known as "Hellenists". There was some serious animosity and fighting between Hellenists and Orthodox wannabe's.
The NTestament was written -(source material)- primarily by people who relied on the Greek Septuagint scripture. When characters quoted the scripture, they quoted from the Septuagint .... including the fellow whom the Gospels identified as "Jesus Christ". The Gospel Jesus then, was a Greek-speaking-writing Jew who didn't understand Hebrew or he would have known that his quotes weren't quite right. You'll find many instances in the NTestament where the OTestament is quoted and when you look up the references in the OTestament ... the wording doesn't match at all! If you look it up in the Septuagint though, the wording will often be identical. This is a little understood fact that is rarely mentioned, explained or amplified upon by theologians ... except "grudgingly."
The same thing holds true for Apostle Paul. He confidently quoted from the Septuagint, believing it to be "God's Word" without realizing that he was quoting from a bad translation. He made a classic boo-boo when he quoted Psalm 51:4 from the Septuagint, to substantiate his argument that the Jews were advantaged even ((IF)) they didn't believe and even ((IF)) it didn't make sense that unbelieving Jews were advantaged nevertheless ... because .... God could do whatever the heck he wanted, to assert himself and show who is boss.
Paul/Septuagint-> [ Against thee only have I sinned, and done evil before thee: that thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged. ]
Hebrew-> [ Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest. ]
A COMPLETELY different concept between the two. In the correct version, David is saying that he totally confesses to his sin so that ... God's judgment will be CLEAR when it is conveyed to him. Who can judge God? No one. And yet the Septuagint was indicating that God can be judged and needs brute force to overcome judgments against him!
Well anyway, you can easily see (I hope) that Paul didn't have a CLUE as to what the HEBREW scripture said ... or he would never have quoted from the Septuagint.
And yet .... Paul was supposed to have learned from Gamaliel ... the great, renowned, orthodox Hebrew Rabbi?