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Anonymous (no login)
Posted Feb 12, 2008 3:40 AM
A 6-month-old boy is presented to you for a new patient visit. His mother is concerned because “he only has one in his scrotum.” Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Any retractile testes must be operated on within 3 months of identification to preserve maximum fertility.
B. An atrophic testis is no risk to the patient and no intervention should be performed.
C. Orchiopexy of an intra-abdominal testis removes the risk of future malignancy.
D. The testis may be absent secondary to in utero torsion.
E. Diagnostic imaging should immediately be pursued to identify the location of this boy’s testis.
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