1 0 0 1 = 1 spanish ft.
David,
Regarding your question of October 10th @ 8:37 a.m.
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I remember as a kid being told there was a difference between the old spanish foot and the common foot. But after looking at all the references recently, I cant see anyone even mentioning the spanish foot. Is there a spanish foot at all?
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David, no one ever mentions the spanish ft. because since at least 1154, the difference between the spanish ft. and the common 1 ft. is less than 1 hbth. That means that even if you deliberately compared a 1 spanish ft. ruler and a common 1 ft. ruler side by side, most adult eyes wouldnt be able to say which was which.
1 spanish ft. = 1 0 0 1 (estimated)
1 spanish ft. = 1.0056 (exact)
But whatever your eyes may or may not see, the spanish foot is grossly incorrect, as Planet Earth requires that any foot must fall within 1.000 to 1.001
The common foot of 1.000 complies with the requirement above.
Info @
http://www.weights-and-measures.com
And topic:
Common Linear Measure
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