The word Nazareth likely comes from that root.
It's most interesting that the Septuagint translation (Hebrew to Greek) which all non-Hebrew-speaking-reading people used at that time contains only ONE reference to "Nazar" and it's the scripture referenced in Matt. 2:23 -"that it might be fulfilled which was spoken...." The scripture referred to is Judges 13:5, which reads, in the Septuagint, as follows .......
[Judges 13:5 for behold, thou art with child, and shalt bring forth a son; and there shall come no {1} razor upon his head, for the child shall be a {2} Nazarite to God from the womb; and he shall begin to save Israel from the hand of the Phylistines.]
Here are the footnotes to the above ...
[ {1) Gr. iron 2) So Vat. i.e., nazir, but Alex. nearer to reading in Mt 2; ult. nazeiraion} ]
Think about it ........... the ONLY time the word "Nazarite" was used in the Septuagint was in that ONE scripture. Naturally, it would seem kind of odd and out of place and would attract attention as being a prophecy (even though it was speaking about Samson).
The razor part and strong drink appeared as frequently in the Septuagint as it does in other translations but the word Nazarite did not.
If you do a word search in the OTestament (Authorized Version) you'll see numerous places where that word is used and you can easily find out what it means but the early "Christians" had only the Septuagint to read and therefore, did not KNOW specifically what it meant.
Without me going into further 'expounding' ....think about the possibilities. What might have happened with the NTestament Gospels over the course of 300 years as more and more "new information" was found in the writings of the early Essenes, Ebionites and Nazarenes?
-Vince
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