has anyone got a formula for scaling down from 35th measurements to 48 th i'd be grateful for any help as im still trying to figuer it out ,can't seem to get it right ,thanks wayne

Hi Wayne you you multiply the measurement in 1/35 by .73 to get the 1/48th measurement AFIK

Best

Paul

Paul is correct 1/35 to 1/48 is .73%. How he got there is by dividing 35 by 48 which was .729 rounded up to .73 or 73%. so then here are a few more.....1/72 to 1/48 is 150%, 1/76 to 1/48 is 79%, you get the idea I'm sure. One more little tid-bit that comes in handy for me

The model inches multiplied by the scale equals scale inches devided by 12 equals the actual 1/1 size.... and then a actual 1/1 item multiplied by 12 equals scale inches devided by the scale you are using equals the model in inches.

As I tend to work in different scales I purchased a ModelCalc some years ago which has paid for itself time over!
If without it or a factor (72.916666) to many decimal places,I find its easy to multiply the measurement by its scale ie 35 then divide by the wanted scale ie 48 this gives an accurate converson without rounding up!

Heres a online scale calculatorhttp://jbwid.com/scalcalc.htm
You can easily calculate between scales with this one with a scale up and scale down option.

I remember a freeware programme by Frank Crenshaw called scalecalc which could be downloaded from various "sites". I must warn you though that the initial version was hacked and some poor unfortunates found it contained a very nasty Trojan virus.
The newer version Scalcalc 2.0 is supposed to be clean but i cannot find it anywhere to download, all the links to it are dead so there must be problems with that one too.

Hi Steve,

1/76 to 1/48 is 79%

I don't mean to call you out or anything, but there's something wrong with this calculation.

Converting 1/76 to 1/48 means dividing 76 by 48 which gives us 1.58333333333333 or approximately 158 percent, so a 1/76 scale drawing would have to be enlarged by 158 percent.

Just trying to help ,
Isamu