Iglesia ni Cristo Forum: if "theres no Jesus until born of Mary"is correct, why will Jesus say Jn 3:13?

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if "theres no Jesus until born of Mary"is correct, why will Jesus say Jn 3:13? April 10 2012 at 3:41 PM		(Login johnmattenson)
Response to word became flesh..."theres no Jesus until born of Mary"

Responses

also why will Jesus say Jn 17:5? - johnmatt on Apr 10, 3:45 PM

if Jesus only existed when only when born of Mary, Jesus will appear lying in Jn 3: 13 - johnmatt on Apr 10, 3:48 PM

Wherefore a man shall leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife
and they shall be two in one flesh