(NIV)John 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.
(KJV)John 17 :5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
(Lamsa)John 17:5 So now, O my Father, glorify me with thee, with the same glory which I had with thee before the world was made.
(Complete Jewish Bible) John 17:5 Now, Father, glorify me alongside yourself. Give me the same glory I had with you before
the world existed.
Let me quote from what you said.
"....If having a glory means pre-existence, then ordinary people would have pre-existed as well. "
"....This proves that God can choose to bestow glory to anyone even before their existence, This is the same thing
that happens to Christ.God has given Him glory before the world begun to be the saviour for man and not as God. "
"....Jesus was given glory before the world was and it does not mean he pre-existed....."
Correct me if I did not get you right. This is how I understand what you are saying:
1. That John 17:5 does say that Jesus had glory with God before the world was made.
2. That God can choose or can bestow glory to Jesus or anyone even if they are not yet in actual/real existence.
3. That having glory does not necessarily mean pre-existence.
I hope I understood you correctly. There is just one question I would like to ask regarding your reasoning.
In John 17:5, Jesus is asking God to glorify Him with the glory He had WITH Him before the world began.
I have no problem believing that God can do the impossible such as bestowing glory to people even before they actually exist
because He is God. In John 17:5 we understand that Jesus had Glory WITH God before the world began. Such glory was both experienced and shared
by Jesus and God before the world even began. But,if Jesus was not yet in existence then and perhaps was just in the mind/plan of God, I find it
rather difficult to comprehend, how Jesus could have experienced that glory WITH God. It would then strongly suggest that Jesus is in existence then,
obviously not as a man, but certainly in a different form or nature, in order to experience such Glory with God, which would explain why he could have
asked God in John 17:5 to glorify Him with the glory He had with God before the world was. How could Jesus have experienced
such glory then with God if in fact He is merely just a plan, idea, or non-existent?