He died for our sins, 1 Cor. 15:3, so for the sins of those in the world who wouldMay 13 2017 at 11:51 PM
|Tomas (Login TomasSedlacek)|
Response to How was His death on the cross be for the sin of the world?
ever become saved. So not for the sins of those destined for the lake of fire.
For example 1 John 3:16 says: "The way he came to know love was that he laid down his life for us...". So he died for us saints. Had he died for the sins of those destined for the lake of fire, then their sins would be paid for too, they would get eternal life. Similarly Acts 20:28 says "... the church of God that he acquired with the blood of his own". So God acquired only the church with the blood of his own Son, who then paid for the sins of only the church, with his blood. Eph. 5:25 says "Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ loved the church and handed himself over for her". So he died for the sins of the church. Not for everybody in the world, or else they would all be saved.
- Yes Jesus died for our sins and we know why. But... - Michael on May 14, 2017, 6:10 AM
- Because he was the only sinless human, then this way he could be a perfect - Tomas on May 14, 2017, 5:56 PM
- How is it that his death on the cross is a sacrifice for the sin of the world? - Michael on May 15, 2017, 11:36 AM
- Because God wanted a perfect sacrifice, and the only sinless human was Christ. - Tomas on May 28, 2017, 1:09 AM
- If not of our sins, would Christ have died? - Michael on May 28, 2017, 5:44 AM
- Of course if none of us sinned, then Christ would not have had to die for us. - Tomas on Jun 10, 2017, 9:24 PM
- Did God violate His own laws written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20? - INCquisitor on May 28, 2017, 4:24 PM
- No, he did not. Christ is the head of the church, his body, so he died for his body. - Tomas on Jun 10, 2017, 9:26 PM