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Re: A new Christ?

May 27 2017 at 4:56 PM
INCquisitor  (Login fccc354)


Response to A new Christ?

 
Isaiah 53 is a prophecy spoken of Christ, and clearly spoke of him as to bear our iniquities, as an offering. And this goes well with the clear testimony about Jesus, as being the lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.

INCQUISITOR:

I don't think apostle Paul had Isaiah 53:3-7 in mind when he said "Christ died for OUR sins ACCORDING to the Scriptures." The death of Christ FOR OUR SINS did not have to be "IN COMPLIANE with" what is written in Isaiah 53:3-7.

Me:

So we differ as to what in scriptures Paul refer to. You want to think that it's not Isaiah 53:3-7. Don't you believe this prophecy spoken of Christ by Isaiah? Don't you also do not see this in that Jesus is the lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. Apparently not.

INCQUISITOR:

Of course, we differ as to what scriptures Paul was referring to in 1 Cor. 5:3. You have no idea what the gospel of Christ is all about.

Paul was talking about the "gospel" that he received, and the "gospel" is this: "that Christ died FOR OUR SINS according to (in compliance with) the Scriptures." This is where, in the "gospel," the "righteousness of God is revealed" (Rom. 1:17). The "righteousness" or "justice" of God is that "every man shall be put to death for his own sin?" (Deut. 24:16). In other words, "the soul that sins, it shall die" (Ezek. 18:20).

Me:

You said "You have no idea what the gospel of Christ is all about." Anyone can say that you as well. And consider that as the obvious.

So you insist of making "according to the scriptures" to mean "in compliance with scriptures". And the reason is obvious, that si to somehow give ground to your doctrine. The Greek word translated as "according to" is "kata" which does not mean here to be "in compliance with", but to be "according to".

If we say "according to the gospel of Matthew" for instance, we can't mean the same thing when we say "in compliance with the gospel of Matthew". The phrase "according to the scriptures" is and means differently to the phrase "in compliance with scriptures". So, sorry to say, it is just not what you want it to be, or want to make it out to be.

INCQUISITOR:

"According to the Scriptures" doesn't mean "in compliance with the Scriptures" ONLY when there is nothing to comply with nor obey like Isaiah 53:3-7. However, when there are things to comply with in the Scriptures cited like Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20, "according to the Scriptures" means the same as "in compliance with the Scriptures."

For instance, in Mt. 17:5, Matthew wrote, "While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and suddenly a voice came out of the cloud, saying, "This is my son, in whom I am well pleased. HEAR HIM!"

My saying, "I HEAR Jesus ACCORDING TO Mt. 17:5," means the same as my saying, "I HEAR Jesus "IN COMPLIANCE with Mt. 17:5" Otherwise, what good would it do me if I cite Mt. 17:5 and NOT listen to Jesus?
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While Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20 which are scriptures as well, they are laws given to Israel. They are not prophecies, nor are a shadow or type, of the death of Christ on the cross.

INCQUISITOR:

These Scriptures are more likely what apostle Paul had in mind. Christ died FOR OUR sins "according to the Scriptures" means that Christ died FOR OUR sins "IN COMPLIANCE with" the "righteousness (justice or law) of God" written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20. Prophecies are fulfilled - NOT complied with.

Me:

"are more likely" says what it is that you think "according to the Scriptures" means. What scriptures says of the death of Jesus Christ is in connection to him bearing our iniquities is the fulfillment of the prophecy spoken of Christ by Isaiah.

INCQUISITOR:

As I said, Paul is talking about the "gospel" he received. And the "gospel' is this: "That Christ died for OUR sins according to (in compliance with) the Scriptures" (1 Cor. 15:3). Isaiah 53 is a prophecy about the sufferings of Christ but does not reveal the "righteousness" or "justice" of God that is supposed to be "revealed in the gospel" (Rom. 1:17).

Me:

No, INCquistor. Isaiah is not just a prophecy about the sufferings of Christ. Read properly and with an open understanding. This prophesy is about Christ and His suffering and death, being the lamb of God, as a sacrifice for the sin of the world. As the sacrificial lamb, Christ bore our sins ~ He died for our sins.

INCQUISITOR:

If Isaiah 53:3-7 is the "gospel" that Paul received, what relation does this "gospel" have with the other epistles of Paul concerning the church as Christ's body and for whom Christ gave his life?
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You speak of the law in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20, being fulfilled by Christ. That is far from even being applicable to the death of Christ. These laws says that "The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not bear the guilt of the father, nor the father bear the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.", and that "Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor shall children be put to death for their fathers, that a person shall be put to death for his own sin".

The bottom line of these laws is that a person shall be put to death for his own sin. You sinned, I sinned. According to these laws, we, individually, will be put to death, for our own sin. That our fathers shall not bear the guilt of our sins, nor they be put to death in our stead. Jesus is far from fulfilling these laws. He can't. Firstly, Jesus is not our father nor he is our son. And even if he is, these laws do not allow him to die for us.

INCQUISITOR:

Your understanding of Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20 is correct. Nobody can NORMALLY die for the sins of others - not even Jesus.
And yes, Jesus is far from fulfilling these laws NORMALLY.

However, Jesus said, "I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is finished" (Mt. 5:17-18). Therefore, Jesus fulfilled the law and indeed "Christ died FOR OUR sins according to (in compliance with) the Scriptures written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20.

Me:

It's not that's it's the normal way or not. As I pointed out, Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20 are far from even being applicable to the death of Christ. For as these laws says, "the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself", not upon anyone other than himself. What Jesus fulfilled with regards his dying for our sins is the prophecy spoken of Christ by Isaiah, he being the lamb of God.

INCQUISITOR:

Apostle Paul said, "Christ died FOR OUR sins according to the Scriptures." Scriptures say, "every man shall be put to death for his own sin" (Deut. 24:16). In other words, "the sin that sins, I shall die" (Ezek. 18:20).

Christ died FOR OUR sins ACCORDING TO (in compliance with) these Scriptures." While it is true that Christ died FOR OUR sins as prophesied by Isaiah, the question is HOW did Christ die FOR OUR sins ACCORDING to (IN COMPLIANCE with) the Scriptures written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20.

Me:

If you don't refute and say even that it is true that Christ died FOR OUR sins as prophesied by Isaiah, then why do you keep insisting your doctrine which scriptures says nothing about and forcing Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20 to apply when they do not, when all you have to do is hear what Isaiah is saying how he suffered, died, and was buried? According to Isaiah, with regards to his death, that Christ poured out His soul unto death, and He was numbered with the transgressors, and He bore the sin of many. And still on this, Isaiah said that it pleased God to bruise Him, and that God has put Him to grief, and made His soul an offering for sin.

INCQUISITOR:

I hear what Isaiah is saying, and all of this is true, but who says Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20 do not apply? These are God's words too.

According to God's law, Jesus was not supposed to die for the sins of others. He was supposed to die for his OWN sin only. But Apostle Paul says "Christ died for OUR sins, ACCORDING TO the Scriptures" (1 Cor. 15:3).

HOW was Christ able to "die for OUR sins" without violating God's law on sin and sinners written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20?

What good is it to know the sufferings of Christ and dying for OUR sins as a sacrificial lamb (Isaiah 53:3-7), if we are "IGNORANT of God's righteousness, and seeking to establish our own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God" (Rom. 10:3)?
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Now, I understand that you make the church and Christ into an imaginary man, Christ being the head part and the church being the body part. But be that as it may, the man that they become is not wholly Christ, but is him and the church. So, this imaginary man could not be Christ, as you want it to be.


INCQUISITOR:

If Christ is the "HEAD of the church, and the church is his BODY" (Eph. 1:22-23), then Christ and the church is the "one new man" that apostle Paul was talking about in Ephesians 2:15-16. This enabled Christ to fulfill God's law or righteousness written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20.

This is also HOW "the righteous requirement of the law is fulfilled in disciples of Christ" (Rom. 8:4). This is also HOW Christ was made sin for disciples of Christ that they might become the righteousness of God in Christ" (2 Cor. 5:21).

Apostle Paul wrote that "Christ is the head of the church; and he is the savior of the body" (Eph. 5:23). Apostle Paul also wrote that "Christ loved the church and gave himself FOR HER" (Eph. 5:25).

That's why apostle Paul wrote that Christ PURCHASED his church with his blood (Acts 20:28).

Me:

The new man you make of, even is not Christ, but is Christ and the church.

INCQUISITOR:

That's true. The "new man" is Christ and the church. Christ and the church is the new Christ. "And he (Christ) is the HEAD of the BODY, the church" (Col. 1:18). The church is Christ's "body" (Eph. 1:22-23).

When Paul said, "Christ died FOR OUR sins, he was talking to members of the "church of God which is in Corinth" (1 Cor. 15:2). These are members of "HIS body" (1 Cor. 12:14). Christ died FOR the sins of his body, or his OWN sins ACCORDING to or IN COMPLIANCE with the Scriptures written in Deut. 24:16 and Ezek. 18:20.

Me:

The new Christ? There we have it. A different Christ is what you preach.

The Christ that the apostles preached is Jesus who suffered and died for our sins, not a new Christ who is not Jesus (old Christ?), but is the Christ and the church.

INCQUISITOR:

I understand perfectly how you think. The Bible says, the gospel of Christ is foolishness to those who are perishing.
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And finally, no scriptures prophesy of this nor there is a testimony in the NT about this.

INCQUISITOR:

This is the "mystery of Christ" (Eph. 3:4), "which in other ages was not made known to the sons of men, as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to His holy apostles and prophets" (Eph. 3:5). "that the Gentiles should be fellow heirs, of the same body, and partakers of the promise in Christ through the gospel.

Me:

Well.....

 
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Responses

  1. Re: A new Christ? - Michael on May 27, 2017, 7:37 PM
    1. Re: A new Christ? - INCquisitor on May 28, 2017, 4:22 PM
      1. Re: A new Christ? - Michael on May 30, 2017, 4:56 AM
        1. Re: A new Christ? - INCquisitor on May 31, 2017, 7:48 PM
          1. Re: A new Christ? - Michael on Jun 1, 2017, 1:21 AM
            1. Re: A new Christ? - INCquisitor on Jun 3, 2017, 6:35 AM
              1. Re: A new Christ? - Michael on Jun 3, 2017, 9:44 AM
                1. Re: A new Christ? - INCquisitor on Jun 3, 2017, 8:04 PM
                  1. Re: A new Christ? - Michael on Jun 7, 2017, 7:21 AM
                    1. Re: A new Christ? - INCquisitor on Jun 11, 2017, 7:00 AM
     
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